rule sharking question

[Phlipz1]

my opponent first set infinite impermanence, then flipped it face up in order to show that he was activating it from hand. he had made a mistake like this in game1, and so this time i picked him up on it
is it considered rule sharking if i say that he is unable to activate the imperm now that he has set it? he has twice missed the button that allows him to play directly into spell/trap zone

i lost the game due to this is why i ask

[Phlipz1]

this happened in his m1, not my turn

[Slitina]

If anything I would ask why they didn’t use the “To S/T” button?

[Phlipz1]

thats what i said. i assume they missed it twice. is this considered sharking? being one is the last thing i want to do

[Renji Asuka]

You're best off calling a judge and having them handle it.

[Cromat]

In my opinion; most people do not know that they can place their Traps by clicking of "To S/T" button, and instead of it they are Set them reverse, then clicking "Activate" button. If your opponent does it while they control any card on their field; you are right about sharking, but if they control no card, they probably mean to activate it from their hand as like I told in my previous sentence. ("Infinite Impermanence" has a part in its text as "If you control no cards, you can activate this card from your hand.".)

[greg503]

It isn't sharking to tell them to use the correct button, then call a judge when they continue to not use that button after it has been pointed out to them

[Fredblade]

Did he flipped it immediately after setting it?