my opponent first set infinite impermanence, then flipped it face up in order to show that he was activating it from hand. he had made a mistake like this in game1, and so this time i picked him up on it
is it considered rule sharking if i say that he is unable to activate the imperm now that he has set it? he has twice missed the button that allows him to play directly into spell/trap zone
i lost the game due to this is why i ask
rule sharking question
this happened in his m1, not my turn
If anything I would ask why they didn’t use the “To S/T” button?
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thats what i said. i assume they missed it twice. is this considered sharking? being one is the last thing i want to do
- Renji Asuka
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You're best off calling a judge and having them handle it.
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In my opinion; most people do not know that they can place their Traps by clicking of "To S/T" button, and instead of it they are Set them reverse, then clicking "Activate" button. If your opponent does it while they control any card on their field; you are right about sharking, but if they control no card, they probably mean to activate it from their hand as like I told in my previous sentence. ("Infinite Impermanence" has a part in its text as "If you control no cards, you can activate this card from your hand.".)
It isn't sharking to tell them to use the correct button, then call a judge when they continue to not use that button after it has been pointed out to them
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Did he flipped it immediately after setting it?
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